Påstående: Bibeln har blivit ändrat i verser från i vad som stog i orginalen. I själva verket handlar det om att man ger sig på vad som står i en minoritetstext av Nya Testamentet.
Om man väljer som troende kristen att följa den Bysantinska majoritetstexten/Textus Receptus (som har rötter från Antiokia där lärjungarna kallades först kristna, Apg 11:26) och som idag är texten som följs i majoriteten av alla kristna ortodoxa kyrkor i världen och en del andra bibelversioner här i väst så finns ingen diskussion om detta.
Men av allmänt intresse vill ta upp 3 fall som är lite speciella. Om någon har synpunkter på detta att ni skulle veta något som borde vara med här, så lägg in era egna tankar. Det vore intressant.
1) Mark 1:41 and the NIV 2010.
In Mark 1:40-41 we read the following: “And there came a leper to him,
beseeching him, and kneeling down to him, and saying unto him, If thou wilt,
thou canst make me clean. And Jesus MOVED WITH COMPASSION, put forth his hand,
and touched him, and saith unto him, I will; be thou clean.”
“Moved with compassion” is the reading found in all Greek texts including the
Majority, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, A, C, as well as the Syriac, most Old Latin
copies, the Vulgate 405, the Armenian, Ethiopian, Georgian and Slavonic ancient
versions. It is also the reading found in Wycliffe 1395, Tyndale 1525,
Coverdale 1535, the Great Bible 1540, Matthew’s Bible 1549, Bishops’ Bible 1568,
the Geneva Bible 1587, the RV 1885, ASV 1901, the NKJV 1982, NASB 1963 thru
1995, the RSV, NRSV 1989, ESV 2001, Holman Standard 2003 and even in the NIV
1973 and 1984 editions. However, based on one very corrupt Greek manuscript (D)
the 2010 NIV has now come out and follows this ridiculous reading and instead of
Jesus having compassion on the leper, He is now angry with him. The NIV 2010
edition now actually says: Mark 1:41 (New International Version, ©2011)
Mark 1:40-41 “A man with leprosy came to him and begged him on his knees, “If
you are willing, you can make me clean.“Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out
his hand and touched the man. “I am willing,” he said. “Be clean!”
Footnotes:
Mark 1:41 Many manuscripts Jesus was filled with compassion.
The bible agnostic versions just keep getting better and better, huh?;-)
(Saxat från ett bibelforum jag är medlem i)
2) Consider Luke 22:44, “And being in an agony he prayed more earnestly: and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling down to the ground.” There is the claim by those who hold the Critical Text Position that verses 43-44 did not exist before the Byzantine Era (the 4th or 5th centuries). It that true? The answer has to be NO! Why? Because Justin (100-165 A.D.), says, “For in the memoirs which I say were drawn up by His Apostles and those who followed them, it is recorded that His sweat fell down like drops of blood while He was praying, and saying, If it be possible, let this cup pass” (Trypho 103:24)
(Early Witness to the Received Text Compiled Pastor David L.Brown)
3) Mark 1:2 (KJV) As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
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Modern texts and translations (and even a venerable, generally Textus Receptus-based version like the Spanish Reina-Valera Bible of 1909!) give “as it is written in Isaiah the prophet” (ASV). Scholars assure us that the modern texts give the original reading here, and that scribes changed an original reading of “in Isaiah the prophet” to “in the prophets” (as in KJV).
Allegedly this was done in order “to rescue Mark from a (misapprehended) error in citing Isaiah when the quotation is from Malachi and Isaiah together,” as James White claims (The King James Only Controversy, p. 254). (The quotation starts with Mal. 3:1 before continuing with Isa. 40:3.) White attempts to back up this assertion by paralleling this verse with Matt. 27:9, where scribes did the same thing in certain MSS. for a similar reason, changing “Jeremiah” to “Zechariah.” In Mark 1:2 “it is much easier to understand why a scribe would try to ‘help Mark out,’” this author insists (ibid., p. 168), than to know why “in Isaiah the prophet” would replace “in the prophets.”
But it seems to me that the problem could also be viewed convincingly from the opposite position. Imagine a scribe copying the opening of Mark and recognizing the familiar Isaiah passage cited in 1:3. It is fully as credible to have him “helping Mark out” by providing the reference—perhaps in the text itself, perhaps in a marginal note that was later miscopied into the next generation of MSS.—as it is to postulate that the reverse occurred. In fact, Wilbur Pickering (in The Identity of the New Testament Text, rev. ed., pp. 89-90) considers it clear that “assimilation” has here been done by copyists, seeing that “The only other places that Isaiah 40:3 is quoted in the New Testament are Matt. 3:3, Luke 3:4, and John 1:23,” which “all identify the quote as being from Isaiah (without MSS variation).” So a copyist might have considered himself to have been improving the general reference by changing it to the specific one found in the other gospels—without apparent regard for Mark’s use of Malachi preceding the Isaiah quote.
Indeed, to reverse the question, one might ask why, if there were an original reading of “in Isaiah the prophet,” a scribe helping Mark out would on his own initiative have written “in the prophets” rather than the more immediately accurate “in Malachi the prophet”—assuming he knew his major and minor prophets well enough to feel the need for correction in the first place!
By the way, we need not remain entirely in the realm of speculation on such a question, but can examine an analogous case which I think undercuts some of White’s assumptions cited above. There happens to be a clear instance of just what I have described—a scribe “helping out” the text of one of the gospel writers by inserting a prophet’s name—in Matt. 13:35, as pointed out by Burgon (Last Twelve Verses of S. Mark, p. 81). In that verse, a scribe amended “spoken by the prophet” to insert the name “Isaiah” (so in Codex Aleph [original hand], Codex Theta, Family 1 and 13 mss. and a few others, according to Nestle-Aland 26). And as is the case with Mark 1:2, the specific identification is quite mistaken, since the verse in Matthew reflects a quotation from Ps. 78:2, not from Isaiah.
Further, the manuscript evidence for the KJV’s reading at Mark 1:2 is by no means negligible; according to UBS-4, it appears in Codex A (“Alexandrinus”) and Codex W, both from the fifth century, as well as the majority of Byzantine mss., the Latin version of Irenaeus’ writings (see his Against Heresies, Book 3, ch. 10, para. 5), the Harclean Syriac, the writings of Asterius (4th century), and many others.
Accept the KJV with full confidence, since the moderns here, as so often elsewhere, have not proven their case.
Och källa till den tredje texten: http://www.pennuto.com/bible/mark1_2.htm
Och min frågeställning: “Jag vill diskutera majoritetstexten (Bysantinska texten och textkritik med andra som är insatta i ämnet). Har Bysantinska texten en fördel i sina tidiga textvittnen av Mark 1:2 med Irenaeus och Luk 22:42-43 med Justinus Martyren?
Om svaret är ja, varför ratas den så ensidigt av textkritiken idag?